Official NEET UG 2012 (D1)

Vapour pressure of chloroform \((CHCl_{3} ) and dichloromethane (CH_{2}Cl_{2} ) at 25^{°}C are 200 mm Hg and 41.5 mm Hg respectively. Vapour pressure of the solution obtained by mixing 25.5 g of CHCl_{3} and 40 g of CH_{2}Cl_{2} at the same temperature will be:

(Molecular mass of CHCl_{3} = 119.5 u and molecular mass of CH_2}Cl_{2} = 85 u)\)

285.5 mm Hg
173.9 mm Hg
615.0 mm Hg
347.9 mm Hg

The Gibbs energy for the decomposition of \(Al_{2}O_{3} at 500^{°}C is as follows:

The potential difference needed for the electrolytic reduction of aluminium oxide (Al_{2}O_{3} ) at 500^{°}C\) at least

5.0 V
4.5 V
3.0 V
2.5 V

Four successive members of the first series of the transition metals are listed below. For which one

of them the standard potential \((^{0}E_{M}^{2+}/M) value has a positive sign?\)

Fe (Z = 26)
Co (Z = 27)
Ni (Z = 28)
Cu (Z = 29)

Which of the following exhibits only +3 oxidation state?

Pa
U
Th
Ac

Molar conductivities\((^{0}\wedge_{m}) at infinite dilution of NaCl, HCl and CH_{3}COONa are 126.4, 425.9 and

91.0 S cm^{2} mol^{–1} respectively.^{0}\wedge_{m} for CH_{3}COOH will be:\)

\(390.5 S cm^{2} mol^{–1}\)
\(425.5 S cm^{2} mol^{-1}\)
\(180.5 S cm^{2} mol^{–1}\)
\(290.8 S cm^{2} mol^{–1}\)

In which of the following arrangements the given sequence is not strictly according to the property indicated against it?

\(\)CO_{2} < SiO_{2} < SnO_{2} < PbO_{2}: increasing oxidising power[/latex]
\(\)HF < HCl < HBr < HI : increasing acidic strength[/latex]
\(\)H2_{O} < H_{2}S < H_{2}Se < H_{2}Te : increasing pK_{a} values[/latex]
\(\)NH_{3} < PH_{3} < AsH_{3} < SbH_{3} : increasing acidic character[/latex]

Consider the reaction:

What sort of reaction is it?

Nucleophilic addition – elimination reaction
Electrophilic addition – elimination reaction
Free radical addition – elimination reaction
Electrophilic substitution elimination reaction

During change of \(O_{2} to ^{-}O_{2} \)ion, the electron adds on which one of the following orbitals?

\(\sigma orbital\)
\(\pi^{\ast}orbital\)
\(\pi orbital\)
\(\sigma^{\ast}orbital\)

Standard reduction potentials of the half reactions are given below:

The strongest oxidising and reducing agents respectively are:

\(Cl_{2} and I_{2}\)
\(F_{2} and I^{–}\)
\( Br_{2} and Cl^{–}\)
\(Cl_{2} and Br^{–}\)

The catalytic activity of transition metals and their compounds is ascribed mainly to

their chemical reactivity
their magnetic behaviour
their unfilled d-orbitals
their ability to adopt variable oxidation states

Equal volumes of two monoatomic gases, A and B, at same temperature and pressure are mixed. The ratio of specific heats \((C_{p} /C_{v} )\) of the mixture will be

1.67
0.83
1.50
3.3

Given that the equilibrium constant for the reaction

has a value of 278 at a particular temperature. What is the value of the equilibrium constant for the following reaction at the same temperature.

\(1.3 × 10^{–5}\)
\( 1.8 × 10^{–3}\)
\(3.6 × 10^{–3}\)
\( 6.0 × 10^{–2}\)

Which one of the following sets forms the bidegradable polymer?

In the replacement reaction

The reaction will be most favourable if M happens to be:

Li
Na
K
Rb

Activation energy [athjax]\((E_{a} ) and rate constants (k_{1} and k_{2} ) of a chemical reaction of two different temperatures (T_{1} and T_{2}\) ) are related by:

Which one of the following does not correctly represent the correct order of the property indicated against it?

\(\)Ti < V < Mn < Cr : increasing 2^{nd} ionization enthalpy[/latex]
Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing number of oxidation states
\(\)Ti^{3+} < V^{3+} < Cr^{3+} < Mn^{3+} : increasing magnetic moment[/latex]
Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing melting points

Red precipitate is obtained when ethanol solution of dimethylglyoxime is added to ammoniacal Ni(II). Which of the following statements is not true?

Dimethylglyoxime functions as bidentate ligand
Red complex has a square planar geometry
Complex has symmetrical H-bonding
Red complex has a tetrahedral geometry

An organic compound\( (C_{3}H_{9}N) (A), when treated with nitrous acid, gave an alcohol and N_{2} gas was evolved. (A) on warming with CHCl_{3} and caustic potash gave (C) which on reduction gave isopropylmethylamine. Predict the structure (A).\)

Structure of a mixed oxide is cubic close-packed (c.c.p). The cubic unit cell of mixed oxide is composed of oxide ions. One fourth of the tetrahedral voids are occupied by divalent metal A and the octahedral voids are occupied by a monovalent metal B. The formula of the oxide is:

\(AB_{2}O_{2}\)
\( ABO_{2}\)
\(A_{2}BO_{2}\)
\(A_{2}B_{3}O_{4}\)

The orbital angular momentum of a p-electron is given as:

\(\)\sqrt{6} , \frac{h}{2\pi}
\(\)\frac{h}{2\pi}
\(\)\sqrt{3} , \frac{h}{2\pi}
\(\)\sqrt{\frac{3{{2}} , \frac{h}{2\pi}

Four diatomic species are listed below. Identify the correct order in which the bond order is increasing in them:

\(\)^{+}He_{2} < ^{-}O_{2} < NO < ^{2-}C{2}[/latex]
\(\)NO<^{-}O_{2}< ^{2-}C{2}< ^{+}He_{2}[/latex]
\(\)^{-}O_{2}< NO< ^{2-}C{2}< ^{+}He_{2}[/latex]
\(\)^{2-}C{2}< ^{+}He_{2}<^{-}O_{2}< NO[/latex]

Which of the following compounds can be used as antifreeze in automobile radiators?

Ethyl alcohol
Methyl alcohol
Glycol
Nitrophenol

For real gases van der Waals equation is written as

The gases given in set-I in increasing order of ‘b’ and gases given in set-II in decreasing order of ‘a’, are arranged below. Select the correct order from the following:

\((I) H_{2} < O_{2} < He < CO_{2} (II) O_{2} > CH_{4} > H_{2}\)
\((I) He < H_{2} < CO_{2} < O_{2}(II) CH_{4} > H_{2} > O_{2}\)
\((I) O_{2} < He < H_{2} < CO_{2} (II) H_{2} > O_{2} > CH_{4}\)
\((I) H_{2} < He < O_{2} < CO_{2} (II) CH_{4} > O_{2} > H_{2}\)

A certain gas takes three times as long to effuse out as helium. Its molecular mass will be:

9 u
27 u
36 u
64 u

Consider the following reaction:

The product ‘A’ is

\(C_{6}H_{5}Cl\)
\(C_{6}H_{5}CHO\)
\(C_{6}H_{5}OH\)
\(C_{6}H_{5}COCH_{3}\)

Which of the following reagents will be able to distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne?

\(Br_{2}\)
\(NaNH_{2}\)
HCl
\(O_{2}\)

Which of the following compounds will give a yellow precipitate with iodine and alkali?

2-Hydroxypropane
Acetophenone
Methyl acetate
Acetamide

Chloroamphenicol is an:

antibiotic – broad spectrum
antifertility drug
antihistaminic
antiseptic and disinfectant

Given the reaction between 2 gases represented by\( A_{2} and B_{2} to give the compound AB_{(g)}\).

If the reaction takes place in a sealed vessel at \(527^{°}C, then the value of K_{c}\) will be:

4.5
2.0
1.9
0.62

Low spin complex of d\(_{6}\) – cation in an octahedral field will have the following energy:

\(\frac{-2}{5}\Delta_{0} + p\)
\(\frac{-12}{5}\Delta_{0} + p\)
\(\frac{-12}{5}\Delta_{0} + 3p\)
\(\frac{-2}{5}\Delta_{0} + 2p\)

n the five-kingdom classification, Chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in

Monera
Protista
Algae
Plantae

Indentify the likely organisms (a), (b) (c) and (d) in the food web shown below

A test cross is carried out to

determine whether two species or varieties will breed successfully
determine the genotype of a plant at \(F_{2}\)
predict whether two traits are linked
assess the number of alleles of a gene

Read the following five statements (A – E) and answer as asked next to them

(A) In Equisetum the female gametophyte is retained on the parent sporophyte

(B) In Ginkgo male gametophyte is not independent

(C) The sporophyte in Riccia is more developed than that in Polytrichum

(D) Sexual reproduction in Volvox is isogamous

One
Two
Three
Four

Which one of the following human organs is often called the “graveyard” of RBCs ?

Liver
Gall bladder
Kidney
Spleen

Which one of the following generally acts as an antagonist to gibberellins ?

IAA
Zeatin
Ethylene
ABA

Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been developed by the introduction of DNA that produced (in the host cells).

A toxic protein
Both sense and anti-sense RNA
A particular hormone
An antifeedant

How many plants in the list given below have marginal placentation ?

Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Asparagus, Arhar, Sun hemp, Chilli, Colchicine, Onion, Moong, Pea, Tobacco, Lupin

Three
Four
Five
Six

For its activity, carboxypeptidase requires

Copper
Zinc
Iron
Niacin

The second stage of hydrosere is occupied by plants like

Vallisneria
Azolla
Typha
Salix

Which one of the following structures is an organelle within an organelle ?

Mesosome
Ribosome
Peroxisome
ER

In gobar gas, the maximum amont is that of

Carbon dioxide
Butane
Methane
Propane

The first clinical gene therapy was given for treating

Adenosine deaminase deficiency
Diabetes mellitus
Chicken pox
Rheumatoid arthritis

Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterised ?

Alanine amino acid – Contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule
Licithin – a phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane
Palmitic acid – an unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms
Adenylic acid – adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule

Green revolution in India occurred during

1950’s
1960’s
1970’s
1980’s

Cuscuta is an example of

Endoparasitism
Ecotoparasitism
Brood parasitism
Predation

Consider the following four statements (a–d) and select the option which includes all the correct ones only

(a) Single cell Spirulina can produce large quantities of food rich in protein, minerals, vitamins etc

(b) Body weight-wise the microorganism Methylophilus methylotrophus may be able to produce several times more proteins than the cows per day

(c) Common button mushrooms are a very rich source of vitamin C

(d) A rice variety has been developed which is very rich in calcium

Statements (a), (b)
Statements (c), (d)
Statements (a), (c) and (d)
Statements (b), (c) and (d)

How many organisms in the list given below are autotrophs ?

Lactobacillus, Nostoc, Chara, Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter, Streptomyces, Sacharomyces, Trypanosoma, Porphyra, Walfia

Three
Four
Five
Six

Which one of the following categories of animals, is correctly described with no single exception in it ?

All mammals are viviparous and possess diaphragm for breathing
All reptiles possess scales, have a three chambered heart and are cold blooded (poikilothermal)
All bony fishes have four pairs of gills and an operculum on each side
All sponges are marine and have collared cells

The four sketches (A, B, C and D) given below, represent four different types of animal tissues. Which one of these is correctly identified in the options given, along with its correct location and function ?

Tissue – Columnar epithelium, Location – Nephron, Function – Secretion and absorption
Tissue – Glandular epithelium , Location – Intestine , Function – Secretion
Tissue – Collagen fibres, Location – Cartilage, Function – Attach skeletal muscles to bones
Tissue – Smooth muscle tissue, Location – Heart, Function – Heart contraction

Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D, and select the right option about them

Part-A Mast Cell Part-B Collagen fibres Part-C Fibroblast Part-D Macrophage
Part-A Macrophage Part-B Fibroblast Part-C Collagen fibres Part-D Mast Cell
Part-A Mast Cell Part-B Macrophage Part-C Fibroblast Part-D Collagen fibres
Part-A Macrophage Part-B Collagen fibres Part-C Fibroblast Part-D Mast Cell

Sacred groves are specially useful in

Conserving rare and threatened species
Generating environmental awareness
Preventing soil erosion
Year-round flow of water in rivers

The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the option giving correct identification together with what it represents ?

A – Annealing with two sets of primers
B – Denaturation at a temperature of about 98°C separatiing the two DNA strands
A – Denaturation at a temperature of about 50°C
C – Extension in the presence of heat stable DNA polymerase

The rate of formation of new organic matter by rabbit in a grassland, is called

Gross primary probductivity
Net productiivty
Secondary productivity
Net primary productivity

Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the International Rules of Nomenclature and correctly described ?

E.coli – Full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occuring bacterium in human intestine
Musca domestica – The common house lizard, a reptile
Plasmodium falciparum – A protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria
Felis tigris – The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests

Which one of the following represents palindromic sequence in DNA ?

5´ – GATACC – 3´ 3´ – CCTAAG – 5´
5´ – GAATTC – 3´ 3´ – CTTAAG – 5´
5´ – CCAATG – 3´ 3´ – GAATCC – 5´
5´ – CATTAG – 3´ 3´ – GATAAC – 5´

Vernalisation stimulates flowering in

Ginger
Zamikand
Turmeric
Carrot

Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity ?

Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-lymphocytes
Preformed antibodies need to the injected to treat the bite by a viper snake
The antibodies against small pox pathogen are produced by T-lymphocytes
Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which has four light chains

Which one of the following sets of items in the options 1 – 4 are correctly categorised with one exception in it ?

ITEMS – Typhoid, Pneumonia, Diphtheria CATEGORY – Bacterial diseases EXCEPTION – Diphtheria
ITEMS – UAA, UAG, UGA CATEGORY – Stop codons EXCEPTION – UAG
ITEMS – Kangaroo,Koala,Wombat CATEGORY – Australian marsupials EXCEPTION – Wombat
ITEMS – Plasmodium, Cuscuta,Trypanosoma CATEGORY – Protozoan parasites EXCEPTION – Cuscuta

Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched ?

Mustard – Synergids
Ginkgo – Archegonia
Salvinia – Prothallus
Viroids – RNA

Which one of the following is a wrong statement regarding mutations ?

Change in a single base pair of DNA does not cause mutation
Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause frame-sheft mutations
Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal aberrations
UV and Gamma rays are mutagens

Read the following four statements (A – D)

(A) Both, photophosphorylation and oxidative phosphorylation involve uphill transport of protons across the membrane

(B) In dicot stems, a new cambium originates from cells of pericycle at the time of secondary growth

(C) Stamens in flowers of Gloriosa and Petunia are polyndrous

(D) Symbiotic nitrogen-fixers occur in free-living state also in soil How many of the above statements are right ?

One
Two
Three
Four

Where do certain symbiotic microorganisms normally occur in human body ?

Duodenum
Caecum
Oral lining and tongue surface
Vermiform appndix and rectum

The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle in also called

follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days
luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days
follicular phase lasting for about 6 days
luteral phase and lasts for about 13 days

Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for

DNA finger printing
Disarming pathogen vectors
Transformation of plant cells
Constructing recombinant DNA by joing whith vectors

A fall in glomeruclar filtration rat (GFR) activates

Posterior pituitary ot release vasopressin
Juxtra glomerular cells to release renin
Adrenal cortex to release aldosterone
Adrenal medulla to release adrenaline

Represented below is the inheritance pattern of a certain type of traits in humans. Which one of the following conditions could be an example of this pattern ?

Thalassemia
Phenylketonuria
Sickle cell anaemia
Haemophilia

Which one of the following cellular parts is correctly described ?

Lysosomes – optimally active at a pH of about 8.5
Thylakoids – flattened membranous sacs forming the grana of chloroplasts
Centrioles – sites for active RNA synthesis
Ribosomes – those on chloroplasts are larger (80s) while those in the cytoplasm are smaller (70s)

Which one of the following options gives the correct categorisation of six animals according to the type of nitrogenous wastes (A, B, C), they give out ?

<img src="https://theneet.in/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/96.png" alt="" />
<img src="https://theneet.in/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/97.png" alt="" />
<img src="https://theneet.in/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/98.png" alt="" />
<img src="https://theneet.in/wp-content/uploads/2020/12/99.png" alt="" />

Which one of the following characteristics is common both in humans and adult frogs ?

Ureotelic mode of excretion
Four – chambered heart
Internal fertilisation
Nucleated RBCs

Identify the human developmental stage shown below as well as the related ritght palce of its occurrence in a normal pregnant woman, and select the right option for the two together.

Developmental stage – 8 – celled morula Site of occurrence – Starting point of Fallopian tube
Developmental stage – Late morula Site of occurrence – Middle part of fallopian tube
Developmental stage – Blastula Site of occurrence – End part of Fallopian tube
Developmental stage – Blastocyst Site of occurrence – Uterine wall

What is the function of germ pore ?

Release of male gametes
Emergence of radicle
Absorption of water for seed germination
Initiation of pollen tube

For its action, nitrogenase requires

Super oxygen radicals
Higth input of energy
Light
\(Mn^{2+}\)

In genetic engineering, the antibiotics are used

To keep the cultures free of infection
As selectable markers
To select healthy vectors
As sequences from where replicaton starts

Through their effect on plant growth regulators, what do the temperature and light control in the plants?

Fruit elongation
Apical dominance
Flowering
Closure of stomata

What is it that forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting ?

Satellite DNA occuring as hightly repeated short DNA segments
The relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA
The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin and saliva
The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves of the fingerprints

Select the correct statements bout biodiversity

Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued by the developed countries
The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert animal species as well as numerous rare animals
Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity
Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism

The domestic sewage in large cities

Have very high amounts of suspended solids and dissolved salts
Has a high BOD as it contains both aerobic and anaerobic bacteria
Is processed by aerobic and then anaerobic bacteria in the secondary treatment is Sewage Treatment Plants (STPs)
When treated in STPs does not really require the aeration step as the sewage contains adequate oxygen

Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules, are generally pollinated by

Wind
Bees
Butterflies
Birds

Read the following four statements (A – D)

(A) Colostrum is recommended for the new born because it is rich in antigens

(B) Chikengunya is caused by a Gram negative bacterium

(C) Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining virus-free plants

(D) Beer is manufactured by distillation of fermented grape juice How many of the above statement are worng ?

One
Two
Three
Four

The supportive skeletal structures in the human external ears and in the nose tip are examples of

Cartilage
Ligament
Areolar tissue
Bone

As compared to a dicot root, a monocot root has

Relatively thicker periderm
More abundant secondary xylem
Many xylem bundles
Inconspicuous annual rings

Which one of the following organisms is correctly matched with its three characteristics ?

Maize : \(C_{3}\) pathway, Closed vascular bundles, Scutellum
Pea : \(C_{3}\) pathway, Endospermic seed, Vexillary aestivation
Tomato : Twisted aestivation, Axile placentation, Berry
Onion : Bulb, Imbricate aestivation, Axile placentation

Which one of the following pairs of chemical substances, is correctly categorised ?

Secretin and rhodopsin – Polypeptide hormones
Calcitonin and thymosin – Thyroid hormones
Pepsin and prolactin – Two digestive enzymes secreted in stomach
Troponin and myosin – Complex proteins in striated muscles

Indenfity the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their source and use

Molecule – (a) Morphine Source – Papaver somniferum Use – Sedative and pain killer
Molecule – (b) Cocaine Source – Erythroxylum coca Use – Accelerates the transport of dopamine
Molecule – (c) Heroin Source – Cannabis sativa Use – Depressant and slows down body functions
Molecule – (d) Cannabinoid Source – Atropa belladona Use – Produces hallucinations

Indentify the meiotic stage in which the homologous chromosomes separate while the sister chromatids remain associated at their centromeres

Anaphase II
Metaphase I
Metaphase II
Anaphase I

Which one of the following statements is worng ?

Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin
When pollen is shed at two-celled stage, double fertilization does not take place
Vegetative cell is larger than generative cell
Pollen grains in some plants remain viable for months

The idea of mutations was brought forth by

Charles Darwin, who abserved a side variety of organisms during sea voyage
Hugo do Vries, who worked on evening primrose
Gregor Mendel, who worked on Pisum sativum
Hardy Weinberg, who worked on allele frequencies in a population

Read the following four statements (A – D)

(A) In transcription, adenosine pairs with uracil

(B) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as positive regulation

(C) The human genome has approximately 50,000 genes

(D) Haemophilia is sex-linked recessive disease

How many of the above statements are right ?

One
Two
Three
Four

Which one of the following pairs of animals are similar to each other pertaining to the feature stated against them ?

Sea horse and Flying fish – Cold blooded (Poikilothermal)
Pteropus and Ornithorhyncus – Viviparity
Garden lizard and Crocodile – Three chambered heart
Ascaris and Ancylostoma – Metameric segmentation

Two metallic spheres of radii 1 cm and 3 cm are given charges of –1 × \(10^{–2} C and 5 × 10^{–2}\) C, respectively. If these are connected by a conducting wire, the final charge on the bigger sphere is

\(1 × 10^{–2} C\)
\(2 × 10^{–2} C\)
\(3 × 10^{–2} C\)
\(4 × 10^{–2} C\)

A proton carrying 1 MeV kinetic energy is moving in a circular path of radius R in uniform magnetic field. What should be the energy of an \(\alpha-particle\) to describe a circle of same radius in the same field?

4 MeV
2 MeV
1 MeV
0.5 MeV

A circular platform is mounted on a frictionless vertical axle. Its radius R = 2 m and its moment of inertia about the axle is 200 kg \(m_{2}\) . It is initially at rest. A 50 kg man stands on the edge of the platform and begins to walk along the edge at the speed of 1 ms\(^{–1}\) relative to the ground. Time taken by the man to complete one revolution is

\(\frac{\pi}{2} s\)
\(\pi s\)
\(\frac{3\pi}{2} s\)
\(2\pi s\)

The ratio of amplitude of magnetic field to the amplitude of electric field for an electromagnetic wave propagating in vacuum is equal to

unity
the speed of light in vacuum
reciprocal of speed of light in vacuum
the ratio of magnetic permeability to the electric susceptibility of vacuum

A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a magnetic field requires \(\sqrt{3}\) J of work to turn it through 60°. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be

\(\sqrt{3}\)
\(2\sqrt{3} j\)
3 J
\(\sqrt{3} j\)

A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a way that its end closer to the pole is 20 cm away for the mirror. The length of the image is

5 cm
10 cm
15 cm
2.5 cm

The moment of inertia of uniform circular disc is maximum about an axis perpendicular to the disc and passing through

A
B
C
D

Which one of the following plots represents the variation of gravitational field on a particle with distance r due to a thin spherical shell of radius R? (r is measured from the centre of the spherical shell)

<img src="https://theneet.in/wp-content/uploads/2021/01/110.png" alt="" />
<img src="https://theneet.in/wp-content/uploads/2021/01/111.png" alt="" />
<img src="https://theneet.in/wp-content/uploads/2021/01/112.png" alt="" />

To get an output Y = 1 in given circuit which of the following input will be correct:

A B C 0 1 0
A B C 1 0 0
A B C 1 0 1
A B C 1 1 0

The equation of a simple harmonic wave is given by \(Y = 3sin\frac{\pi}{2}(50t-x)\) where x and y are in metres and t is in seconds. The ratio of maximum particle velocity to the wave velocity is

\(\frac{2}{3}\pi\)
\(2\pi\)
\(\frac{3}{2}\pi\)
\(3\pi\)

A parallel plate capacitor has a uniform electric field E in the space between the plates. If the distance between the plates is d and area of each plate is A, the energy stored in the capacitor is

\(\varepsilon_{0}EAd\)
\(\frac{1}{2}\varepsilon_{0}E^{2}\)
\(E^{2}Ad/\varepsilon_{0}\)
\(\frac{1}{2}\varepsilon_{0}E^{2} Ad\)

The power dissipated in the circuit shown in the figure is 30 Watts. The value of R is

\(30 \Omega\)
\(20 \Omega\)
\(15 \Omega\)
\(10 \Omega\)

If\( v_{e} v_{o} \) is orbital velocity of a satellite for orbit close tot he earth’s surface, then these are related by

\( v_{e} =\sqrt{2}v_{o} \)
\( v_{o} =\sqrt{2}v_{e} \)
\( v_{o} = v_{e} \)
\( v_{e} =\sqrt{2v_{o}} \)

A stone is dropped from a height h. It hits the ground with a certain momentum P. If the same stone is dropped from a height 100% more than the previous height, the momentum when it hits the ground will change by

100%
68%
41%
200%

An ideal gas goes from state A to state B via three different processes as indicated in the P-V diagram If \(Q_{1} , Q_{2} , Q_{3} indicate the heat absorbed by the gas along the three processes and \DeltaU_{1} , \DeltaU_{2} , \DeltaU_{3}\) indicate the change in internal energy along the three processes respectively, then

\(Q_{3} > Q_{2} > Q_{1} and \DeltaU_{1} , \DeltaU_{2} , \DeltaU_{3}\)
\(Q_{3} > Q_{2} > Q_{1} and \DeltaU_{1} = \DeltaU_{2} = \DeltaU_{3}\)
\(Q_{1} > Q_{2} > Q_{3} and \DeltaU_{1} = \DeltaU_{2} = \DeltaU_{3}\)
\(Q_{1} = Q_{2} = Q_{3} and \DeltaU_{1} , \DeltaU_{2} , \DeltaU_{3}\)

Two radiations of photons energies 1 eV and 25 eV, successively illuminate a photosensitive metallic surface of work function 0.5 eV. The ratio of the maximum speeds of the emitted electrons is

1 : 5
1 : 4
1 : 2
1 : 1

For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must be made of a material whose refractive index

is greater than 2
\(lies between \sqrt{2} and 1\)
\(lies between 2 and \sqrt{2}\)
is less than 1

Official NEET UG 2012 (D1)

Official NEET UG 2012 (D1)

Test Summary

Information

Results

Results

Categories

1. Question

2. Question

3. Question

4. Question

5. Question

6. Question

7. Question

8. Question

9. Question

10. Question

11. Question

12. Question

13. Question

14. Question

15. Question

16. Question

17. Question

18. Question

19. Question

20. Question

21. Question

22. Question

23. Question

24. Question

25. Question

26. Question

27. Question

28. Question

29. Question

30. Question

31. Question

32. Question

33. Question

34. Question

35. Question

36. Question

37. Question

38. Question

39. Question

40. Question

41. Question

42. Question

43. Question

44. Question

45. Question

46. Question

47. Question

48. Question

49. Question

50. Question

51. Question

52. Question

53. Question

54. Question

55. Question

56. Question

57. Question

58. Question

59. Question

60. Question

61. Question

62. Question

63. Question

64. Question

65. Question

66. Question

67. Question

68. Question

69. Question

70. Question

71. Question

72. Question

73. Question